Posted by: Anonymous Coward
on August 29, 2003 01:13 AM
Not so much.. Take your argument and examine a claim like the following: 'Knute's house is really a part of the Canada, and not the United States of America, because it's on the border, and Knute votes it so(being the sole occupant and therefore a majority).' Local majority rule, in cases of national territories, seldom amounts to much. If secession were as easy as a single democratic yay/nay vote, do you think Ireland and the United Kingdom would have had their 'Troubles'?
As well, the 1942 comment is specious-- a key difference would be the fact that France's recognized borders had been violated to achieve a unilateral occupation. A better example might have been the case of East Timor.
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Re:Yes, and Kashmir really belongs to Pakistan
Posted by: Anonymous Coward on August 29, 2003 01:13 AMTake your argument and examine a claim like the following:
'Knute's house is really a part of the Canada, and not the United States of America, because it's on the border, and Knute votes it so(being the sole occupant and therefore a majority).'
Local majority rule, in cases of national territories, seldom amounts to much. If secession were as easy as a single democratic yay/nay vote, do you think Ireland and the United Kingdom would have had their 'Troubles'?
As well, the 1942 comment is specious-- a key difference would be the fact that France's recognized borders had been violated to achieve a unilateral occupation. A better example might have been the case of East Timor.
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