Posted by: Anonymous Coward
on September 30, 2004 04:55 AM
To exist a theft, there is someone who should be "restricted" from the use of something.
There is no such thing of code theft unless the "thief" would erase all the other existing copies of the code.
What you are looking in this case is not "theft" but "illegal copy"...
Mind about the terms, because, illegal copy is a copyright violation... and theft is a crime... (in most countries, they are in diferent branchs of the law, meaning that the first is in "civil code of law" and the other in "penal code of law").
With the advent of DMCA everything is a crime so, the distinction is futil...
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Re:"Code theft"?
Posted by: Anonymous Coward on September 30, 2004 04:55 AMThere is no such thing of code theft unless the "thief" would erase all the other existing copies of the code.
What you are looking in this case is not "theft" but "illegal copy"...
Mind about the terms, because, illegal copy is a copyright violation... and theft is a crime... (in most countries, they are in diferent branchs of the law, meaning that the first is in "civil code of law" and the other in "penal code of law").
With the advent of DMCA everything is a crime so, the distinction is futil...
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